The provisional execution of the sentence imposed on Marine Le Pen is a political decision by its effects. Anyone claiming otherwise is either a hypocrite, ignorant, or both.
Thank you for this supplemental explanation, and very much appreciative of you conversing with Michael Shellenberger.
Please consider posting / writing for his 'Public' substack occasionally; I still love you French for The Statue Of Liberty, among other gifts, over the years!
Re: "Law for Confidence in Political Life of September 15, 2017, Article 131-26-2 was added to the French Penal Code, making it mandatory to impose an ineligibility penalty" -- was this enacted on the occasion of Francois Fillon making himself a nuisance to the Ruling Class in 2017, (when charges were brought against him, similar to those against LePen, for inappropriate use of staff funding, essentially)?
The reason I ask is that I responded on Facebook to Washington Post's Lee Hockstader's newly posted column on Marine LePen, which sounded like a discussion of her "crimes", when it should be obvious to anyone possessed of common sense & basic observational skills that LePen's great crime has been powerful showings in recent electoral showings against the powers-that-be. So I posted in response some Bloomberg coverage of that (from last June).
And it seems that Fillon's case makes this all the more obvious.
But I am no specialist on French politics, and might be getting this wrong. Any thoughts?
Thank you for this supplemental explanation, and very much appreciative of you conversing with Michael Shellenberger.
Please consider posting / writing for his 'Public' substack occasionally; I still love you French for The Statue Of Liberty, among other gifts, over the years!
Thank you !
Re: "Law for Confidence in Political Life of September 15, 2017, Article 131-26-2 was added to the French Penal Code, making it mandatory to impose an ineligibility penalty" -- was this enacted on the occasion of Francois Fillon making himself a nuisance to the Ruling Class in 2017, (when charges were brought against him, similar to those against LePen, for inappropriate use of staff funding, essentially)?
The reason I ask is that I responded on Facebook to Washington Post's Lee Hockstader's newly posted column on Marine LePen, which sounded like a discussion of her "crimes", when it should be obvious to anyone possessed of common sense & basic observational skills that LePen's great crime has been powerful showings in recent electoral showings against the powers-that-be. So I posted in response some Bloomberg coverage of that (from last June).
And it seems that Fillon's case makes this all the more obvious.
But I am no specialist on French politics, and might be getting this wrong. Any thoughts?
You are absolutely right.